EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...


Question List

Question1: Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Question2: Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

Question3: Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Question4: Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Question5: A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

Question6: Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

Question7: The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

Question8: Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

Question9: Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

Question10: Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

Question11: Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

Question12: When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?

Question13: Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

Question14: Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Question15: Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?

Question16: The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

Question17: Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

Question18: Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

Question19: Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

Question20: Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

Question21: The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500. What is the actual cost of the project?

Question22: Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

Question23: Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

Question24: Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?

Question25: Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

Question26: The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

Question27: The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:

Question28: The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

Question29: Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

Question30: Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:

Question31: A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?

Question32: Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

Question33: Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Question34: What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

Question35: The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

Question36: An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

Question37: The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

Question38: Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?

Question39: The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

Question40: Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Question41: Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

Question42: The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity E is how many days?

Question43: Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

Question44: Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

Question45: When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

Question46: Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

Question47: Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?

Question48: When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?

Question49: The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers' needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

Question50: Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

Question51: Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

Question52: An input to Conduct Procurements is:

Question53: Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

Question54: The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

Question55: What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

Question56: A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:

Question57: The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

Question58: Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

Question59: Most experienced project managers know that:

Question60: Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

Question61: Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

Question62: Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

Question63: Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

Question64: Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

Question65: The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

Question66: After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

Question67: The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

Question68: Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

Question69: Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

Question70: Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

Question71: The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

Question72: Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

Question73: In project management, a temporary project can be:

Question74: Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:

Question75: Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

Question76: The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

Question77: Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

Question78: Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

Question79: Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

Question80: The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

Question81: A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

Question82: An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

Question83: Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

Question84: A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

Question85: When is a project finished?

Question86: Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

Question87: A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?

Question88: An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:

Question89: Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Question90: In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

Question91: Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

Question92: The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:

Question93: Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?

Question94: In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Question95: Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

Question96: At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Question97: The stakeholder register is an output of:

Question98: While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:

Question99: The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Question100: Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Question101: Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

Question102: Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

Question103: The following is a network diagram for a project. The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Question104: One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

Question105: Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Question106: Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

Question107: Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

Question108: The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

Question109: At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

Question110: Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

Question111: The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

Question112: The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

Question113: The staffing management plan is part of the:

Question114: Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

Question115: In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

Question116: A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

Question117: At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

Question118: Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

Question119: An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

Question120: While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

Question121: Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

Question122: Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

Question123: The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

Question124: A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:

Question125: The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

Question126: Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Question127: Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Question128: Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

Question129: A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

Question130: Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

Question131: The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

Question132: Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

Question133: Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

Question134: What causes replanning of the project scope?

Question135: Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Question136: Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?

Question137: Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

Question138: A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:

Question139: Which of the following is a project constraint?

Question140: The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Question141: Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

Question142: Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

Question143: One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

Question144: Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

Question145: What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

Question146: The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:

Question147: A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

Question148: Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

Question149: Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

Question150: Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?

Question151: What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

Question152: The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

Question153: Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

Question154: The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X.
The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

Question155: A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

Question156: What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

Question157: Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

Question158: The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

Question159: The product scope description is used to:

Question160: What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?

Question161: Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

Question162: Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

Question163: A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

Question164: Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

Question165: Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

Question166: Typical outcomes of a project include:

Question167: What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

Question168: Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

Question169: Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

Question170: Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

Question171: Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

Question172: The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

Question173: A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

Question174: The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:

Question175: Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

Question176: Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

Question177: What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Question178: When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:

Question179: Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?

Question180: An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

Question181: Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

Question182: Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

Question183: A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

Question184: The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

Question185: The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

Question186: Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

Question187: The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

Question188: A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

Question189: The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

Question190: Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?

Question191: Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?

Question192: Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

Question193: The Human Resource Management processes are:

Question194: Which techniqe should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?

Question195: The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

Question196: Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

Question197: Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

Question198: Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

Question199: Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

Question200: When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

Question201: Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

Question202: The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

Question203: A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

Question204: What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

Question205: Quality metrics are an output of which process?

Question206: Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

Question207: Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

Question208: Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?

Question209: Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Question210: How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?

Question211: Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

Question212: What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

Question213: Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

Question214: Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

Question215: What is project management?

Question216: What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

Question217: Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Question218: The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

Question219: Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

Question220: The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

Question221: Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

Question222: Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?

Question223: When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

Question224: In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

Question225: Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

Question226: If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst- case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

Question227: The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

Question228: During project selection, which factor is most important?

Question229: What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

Question230: An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:

Question231: Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

Question232: What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

Question233: Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

Question234: The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

Question235: The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

Question236: Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

Question237: An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:

Question238: When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

Question239: When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

Question240: Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

Question241: Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

Question242: Who is responsible for initiating a project?

Question243: The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

Question244: A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?

Question245: External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:

Question246: Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Question247: Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

Question248: The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

Question249: Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

Question250: Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

Question251: At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

Question252: Which item is a cost of conformance?

Question253: An output of the Create WBS process is:

Question254: The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

Question255: Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

Question256: Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Question257: As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost.
What should be used to calculate the forecast?

Question258: Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?

Question259: The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

Question260: An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

Question261: Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

Question262: Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

Question263: Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

Question264: Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

Question265: An output of the Create WBS process is:

Question266: Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project's:

Question267: Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

Question268: Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

Question269: A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

Question270: Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

Question271: Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

Question272: Resource calendars are included in the:

Question273: Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Question274: Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

Question275: During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

Question276: Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

Question277: In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Question278: In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

Question279: Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

Question280: Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

Question281: A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

Question282: Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

Question283: A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Question284: Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

Question285: Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

Question286: Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

Question287: In a project, total float measures the:

Question288: The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

Question289: Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

Question290: Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

Question291: What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

Question292: Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

Question293: When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

Question294: Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Question295: An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

Question296: Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:

Question297: In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

Question298: Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

Question299: Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

Question300: Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

Question301: The diagram below is an example of a:

Question302: Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?

Question303: Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?

Question304: Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

Question305: Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

Question306: An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Question307: Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

Question308: Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?

Question309: In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

Question310: Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Question311: Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

Question312: Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

Question313: The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

Question314: What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

Question315: Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

Question316: The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

Question317: Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

Question318: Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

Question319: Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

Question320: Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

Question321: Which type of graphic is displayed below?

Question322: The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

Question323: When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

Question324: A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

Question325: Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Question326: What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Question327: What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

Question328: A project lifecycle is defined as:

Question329: Risk exists the moment that a project is:

Question330: A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

Question331: An example of a group decision-making technique is:

Question332: Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

Question333: Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

Question334: The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

Question335: Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?

Question336: The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

Question337: Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

Question338: Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

Question339: What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

Question340: Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

Question341: The following is a network diagram for a project.

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Question342: What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

Question343: A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

Question344: An output of Control Schedule is:

Question345: Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

Question346: Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

Question347: A regression line is used to estimate:

Question348: Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

Question349: Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

Question350: A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

Question351: The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Question352: An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

Question353: The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:

Question354: Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

Question355: Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

Question356: In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

Question357: An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

Question358: Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

Question359: Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

Question360: y cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

Question361: Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?

Question362: The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

Question363: Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

Question364: When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

Question365: Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?

Question366: Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

Question367: Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

Question368: How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Question369: To which process is work performance information an input?

Question370: An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Question371: Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

Question372: Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?

Question373: Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

Question374: The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

Question375: Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

Question376: A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

Question377: The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

Question378: The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

Question379: When should quality planning be performed?

Question380: Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

Question381: Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

Question382: What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

Question383: An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Question384: A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

Question385: An input to Close Project or Phase is:

Question386: Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

Question387: Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

Question388: The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

Question389: Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

Question390: Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

Question391: Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

Question392: Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

Question393: Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

Question394: What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is
$50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?

Question395: A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

Question396: In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

Question397: Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

Question398: Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:

Question399: An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

Question400: An input of the Create WBS process is:

Question401: Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

Question402: A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

Question403: A reward can only be effective if it is:

Question404: Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?

Question405: The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

Question406: An example of a group decision-making technique is:

Question407: Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

Question408: Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

Question409: Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

Question410: High-level project risks are included in which document?

Question411: The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

Question412: Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?